Industrial, Labour & General Laws June 2017 for Mock Test

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CS Executive Solved June 2017 Industrial, Labour & General Laws exam For Mock test. Practice previous year exam along with answer key for CS Executive. Practicing mock test helps students in achieving their goal as mock test is the best way to evaluate your practice for an exam. It becomes more important to practice mock test for those exams which have negative marking like CS Executive. 

Practice CS executive previous year question papers. 

Question 1. According to Section 3(1)(b) of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 the ‘appropriate Government’ may review at such intervals as it may think fit, such intervals not exceeding ______________years, and revise the minimum rate of wages, if necessary
Question 2. Under the Factories Act, 1948, The Certifying Surgeon may grant or renew to any such young person, a certificate of fitness, in the prescribed form to work as a child,if, after examination, he is satisfied that such young person has completed his
Question 3. Under the Factories Act, 1948 whenever a new manager is appointed, the occupier shall send to the Inspector a written notice and to the Chief Inspector a copy thereof, within .............................................. days from the date on which such person takes over charge 
Question 4. Under the Factories Act, 1948, “Manufacturing processes” include :
Question 5. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, “Wages” means all remuneration (whether by way of salary allowances or otherwise) expressed in terms of money or capable of being so expressed and includes
Question 6. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, minimum wages are to be fixed on basis of standard normal working hours, namely 
Question 7. “Only a member of Board of Directors of the company can be occupier of the factory of the company. The ultimate control of factory owned by company vests in Board of Directors.” This was stated in the case of ............................ in respect of occupier of a factory under the Factories Act, 1948
Question 8. Where an employee is engaged in work on piece work, wages shall be paid in terms of Section 17 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 at 
Question 9. The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 is applicable to factories and other classes of establishments engaged in specific industries employing 
Question 10. The definition of employee in the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 includes
Question 11. To adjudicate disputes under the Employees, State Insurance Act, 1948, ....................... has its jurisdiction
Question 12. The present rate of contribution of insurance amount by employer under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 shall be .............. percent of the workers’ wages
Question 13. The authorities for the purpose of hearing and deciding complaints with regard to the contravention of any provisions of the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 shall not be below the rank of a :
Question 14. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 in fixing minimum rates of wages in respect of any schduled employment for the first time or in revising minimum rates of wages, the appropriate Government can follow :
Question 15. When in an accounting year, the allocable surplus exceeds the amount of maximum bonus payable to the employees then, the excess shall be, subject to a limit of ..................... of the total salary or wages of the employees employed in the establishment in that accounting year, be carried forward for being set on in the succeeding accounting year and so on up to and inclusive of the fourth accounting year to be utilized for the purpose of payment of bonus in the manner illustrated in the Fourth Schedule of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
Question 16. If there is a dispute regarding payment of bonus pending before any authority under Section 22 of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 all amounts payable to an employee by way of bonus under this Act shall be paid in cash by his employer, within ....................... from the date from which the award becomes enforceable or the settlement comes into operation, in respect of such dispute.
Question 17. If any dispute arises between an employer and his employee with respect to the bonus payable under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 then, such dispute shall be deemed to be 
Question 18. As per Section 7(3A) of the Payment of the Gratuity Act, 1972 if the amount of gratuity payable under sub-section (3) is not paid by the employer within the period specified in sub-section (3) due to the fault of the employer, then the employer shall pay, from the date on which the gratuity becomes payable to the date on which it is paid, simple interest at the rate of :
Question 19. The explanation of the term ‘Pay’ under the Employees Provident Fund Scheme, include cash value of 
Question 20. “Justifiability of a strike is purely a question of fact. Therefore, if the strike was restored to by the workers in support of their reasonable, fair and bona fide demands in peaceful manner, then the strike will be justified. Where it was resorted to by using violence or acts of sabotage or of any ulterior purpose, then the strike will be unjustified.” This was held in the case of ....................... in respect of legality of strike under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
Question 21. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, Gratuity can be withheld by an employer, if 
Question 22. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, A nominee of an employee who is eligible for payment of gratuity in the case of death of the employee shall apply to the employer ordinarily within ......................... days from the date of the gratuity becomes payable to him.
Question 23. As per Section 7(3) of the Payment of the Gratuity Act, 1972 the employer shall arrange to pay the amount of gratuity within ............................ days from the date of its becoming payable to the person to whom it is payable
Question 24. The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 does not cover for persons employed in 
Question 25. The definition of employee in the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, include
Question 26. The definition of employer in the Employees’s Compensation Act, 1923, include :
Question 27. Part II of Schedule I of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 contains list of injuries deemed to result in 
Question 28. In the case of death of a master or seaman, where the ship has been deemed lost with all hands, what is the maximum time period to make claim for compensation by the claimant, without sufficient cause as per Section 15 of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
Question 29. In the case of death of an employee in respect of whom Section 15B of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 apply, the claim for compensation shall be made, within .......................... after the news of the death has been received by the claimant, without sufficient cause
Question 30. “Employees working in canteens in industrial establishments run by managing committee are not employees of managing committee but are employees of occupier.” This was held in the case of ........................... in relation to Factories Act, 1948.
Question 31. Where an employer is in default in paying compensation under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, he would be liable to pay as penalty of 
Question 32. Schedule III of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 contains list of
Question 33. Schedule IV of the Employees’Compensation Act, 1923 deals with
Question 34. Part I of Schedule I of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 contains list of :
Question 35. The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 prescribes penalties for the contravention of the provisions of the Act which include fine upto 
Question 36. The licence issued by the licensing officer under the Central Rules of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 is valid for 
Question 37. The licensing officers referred under Section 11 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 are the
Question 38. The penalty provided for violation of the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 and the Rules made thereunder, is the fine, or imprisonment or both in the form of 
Question 39. What is the limitation period under Section 27 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 to make complaint before the appropriate court ?
Question 40. In the case of __________ it was held that “the government employees have no fundamental right, statutory or equitable or moral to resort to strike and they cannot take the society at ransom by going on strike, even if there is justice to some extent
Question 41. Under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, establishments employing not less than 10 persons and not more than 19 persons are required to furnish a core Return in 
Question 42. Which Section of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 deals with the powers of Inspectors
Question 43. As per section 16 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, one or more canteens shall be provided and maintained by the contractor for the use if such contract labour employed by him is :
Question 44. Section 26 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 provides that no Court shall take cognizance of any offence under this Act, except on a complaint made by, or with the previous sanction in writing of 
Question 45. Section 4 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, provides that no employer shall knowingly employ a woman in any establishment during the .............................. immediately following the day of her delivery, miscarriage or medical termination of pregnancy
Question 46. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, a woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit if she has actually worked in an establishment of the employer from whom she claims maternity benefit, for a period of not less than ....................... in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of her expected delivery
Question 47. Section 21 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, provides that if any employer fails to pay any amount of maternity benefit to a woman entitled under this Act or discharges or dismisses such woman during or on account of her absence from work in accordance with the provisions of the Act, he shall be punishable with fine and/or imprisonment which shall not be less than :
Question 48. Section 7 of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 provides that no child shall be required or permitted to work in any establishment in a day inclusive of interval for rest in excess of 
Question 49. Section 14 of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, provides that whoever employs any child or permits any child to work in contravention of the provisions of Section 3 of the Act shall be punishable with fine and/or imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 
Question 50. In the case of ......................... it was held that “though there exists no express provision in the Contract Labour (Prohibition and Abolition) Act, 1970 for absorption of employees in establishments where contract labour system is abolished by publication of notification under Section 10(1) of the Act, the principal employer is under obligation to absorb the contract labour
Question 51. As per Section 3 of Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, from the date on which 1 the employer of an establishment shall submit  to the Certifying Officer five copies of the draft Standing Orders proposed by him for adoption in that establishment within :
Question 52. Under the provisions of Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 , where there are two categories of workers, daily rated and monthly rated but the certified Standing Orders are in respect of daily rated workmen only, then which Standing Orders can be applied to monthly rated workmen ?
Question 53. Section 13-A of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 provides that the question relating to application or interpretation of a Standing Order certified under this Act, can be referred by any employer or workman or a trade union or other representative body of the work men to any :
Question 54. Who is a workman in reference to the provisions of Section 
Question 55. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 which of the following constitute an industrial dispute ?
Question 56. As per Section 5 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, the certified standing orders upon certification, will be sent by the Certified officer to both the employer and the employees association within :
Question 57. As per Section 31 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 whoever contravenes any of the provisions of  his Act or any rules made thereunder shall, if no other penalty is elsewhere provided by or under this Act forsuch contravention, be punishable will fine which may extend to :
Question 58. The definition of wages under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 does not include :
Question 59. Trade dispute under the provisions of the Trade Union Act, 1926 means any dispute of any person connected with :
Question 60. In the case of ...................... it was held that “If after the accident the worker has become disable , and cannot do a particular job  but the employer offers him another kind of job, the worker is entitled to compensation for partial disablement under the provisons of the Empoyees’ Compensation Act,1923”.
Question 61. "Under the provisions of Apprentices Act. 1961, any person aggrieved by the decision of the Apprenticeship Adviser may prefer an appeal against the decision to the Apprenticeship Council from the date of communication to him of such decision within ......................... .


Question 62. "
Question 63. As per section 6 of the Act, any employer who fails to comply with the provisions of the Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining Registers by Certain Establishments) Act, 1988 shall, in the case of the second or subsequent conviction, be punishable with fine of :
Question 64. As per section 20 of the Apprentices Act, 1961 any disagreement or dispute between an employer and an apprentice arising out of the contract of apprenticeship for decision shall be referred to 
Question 65. Under the Factories Act, 1948, the definition of “Factory” does not cover :
Question 66. As per section 6 of the Act, any employer who fails to comply with the provisions of the Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining Registers by Certain Establishments) Act, 1988 shall, in the case of the second or subsequent conviction, be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to 
Question 67. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the meaning of retrenchment does not include
Question 68. “Superannuation”, in relation to an employee, who is the member of the Pension Scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Mischellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, means the attainment, by the said employee, of the age of
Question 69. The State Governments carry out the administration of the Factories Act, inter-alia, through 
Question 70. As per Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, An employee is entitled to be paid by his employer a bonus in an accounting year subject to the condition that he has worked for not less than ........................... working days of that year.
Question 71. The objectives of labour audit include 
Question 72. Subordinate legislation can take effect upon
Question 73. Writ of Certiorari is available to any 
Question 74. Right to constitutional remedies is 
Question 75. Delegated legislation may take the form of 
Question 76. If there is any apprearance of inconsistency between the schedule and the enactment 
Question 77. Preamble
Question 78. Fundamental right includes 
Question 79. Article 19 is guaranteed to 
Question 80. Articles 25 of the Constitution deal with :
Question 81. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed by 
Question 82. Under the Constitution of India, the State authority includes :
Question 83. Jurisdiction of a civil court may be of :
Question 84. Which of the following would come under Doctrine of “sufficient cause” ?
Question 85. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provides in its Second Schedule the form of warrant of arrest in :
Question 86. The characteristics of an injunction is that ................ 
Question 87. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 “summary trial” .................... means :
Question 88. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 the requisites of a “complaint” in a criminal case include 
Question 89. Under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, a suit can be filed to set aside an ex-parte decree obtained 
Question 90. Under Section 2(14) of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, the formal expression of any decision of a civil court means :
Question 91. Under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, a decree is an 
Question 92. Estoppel is a rule of evidence and does not give rise to a
Question 93. the power to extend the period of limitation as per section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 ?
Question 94. Tortious liability :
Question 95. A contract cannot be specifically enforced, if it is :
Question 96. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, specific performances of contract may be obtained by 
Question 97. Under Section 16 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person 
Question 98. Relief of cancellation of instruments under Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 would be available when 
Question 99. The Right to Information Act, 2005, provides exemption to intelligence and security agencies from the ambit of the Act, as given in its 
Question 100. If the information concerns life or liberty of a person, then the information under the Right to Information Act, 2005, will be provided within 
Question 101. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005 “right to information” includes


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