Industrial, Labour & General Laws December 2014 For Mock Test

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CS Executive previous year Solved December 2014 Industrial, Labour & General Laws paper. Now practice along with answer key to CS Executive previous year question papers. Practicing mock test helps students in achieving their goal as mock test is the best way to evaluate your practice for an exam. It becomes more important to practice mock test for those exams which have negative marking like CS Executive. 
Question 1. As per the Factories Act, 1948 any engine, motor or other appliance which generates or otherwise provides power is defined as
Question 2. Section 13A of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 provides that every register and record required to be maintained shall be preserved for a period of _________ after the date of last entry made therein
Question 3. A premises including precincts thereof is a factory within the meaning of the Factories Act, 1948 whereon ______ are working, or were working on any day of the preceding twelve months and in any part of which a manufacturing process is being carried on with the aid of power or is ordinarily so carried on; or whereon ________ are working, or were working  on a day of the preceding twelve months, and in any part of which a manufacturing process is being carried on without the aid of power, or is ordinarily so carried on
Question 4. As per the Factories Act, 1948 ADOLESCENT means a person who has completed
Question 5. As per section 16 of the Factories Act, 1948 the minimum space to be allocated to each worker employed in the factory is
Question 6. According to section 3 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 the _______ may review at such intervals as it may think fit, such intervals __________ years, and revise the minimum rate of wages, if necessary 
Question 7. As per section 90 of the Factories Act, 1948 the State Government may, if it considers it expedient to do so, appoint a competent person to inquire into the causes of any accident occurring in a factory or into any case where a disease specified in ________ has been, or is suspected to have been contracted in the factory
Question 8. As per section 53 of the Factories Act, 1948 where, as a result of the passing of an order or the making of a rule under the provisions of this Act exempting a factory or the workers therein from the provisions of weekly holidays, a worker deprived of any of the weekly holidays for which provision is made, he shall be allowed, within the month in which the holidays were due to him or within the two months immediately following that month, _________ of equal number to the holidays so lost
Question 9. As per section 6 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 all wages shall be paid in current coin or currency notes or in both. However, the employer may, after obtaining the written authorisation of the employed person, pay him the wages either by ____________ or by crediting the wages in his ___________.
Question 10. As per section 48 of the Factories Act, 1948 in every factory wherein more than ____________ women workers are ordinarily employed, the facility of suitable room or rooms should be provided and maintained for the use of children under the age of ___________ of such women 
Question 11. __________ means any trade or occupation or any subject field in engineering or technology or any vocational course which the Central Government, after consultation with the Central Apprenticeship Council, may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify as a __________ for the purposes of Apprentices Act, 1961
Question 12. The payment of wages of certain classes of employed persons is regulated by the
Question 13. Section 5 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 specifies that the wages of every person employed upon or in any railway factory or industrial or other establishment upon or in which less than one thousand persons are employed, shall be paid before the expiry of the ______________ day. The wages of every person employed upon or in any other railway factory or industrial or other establishment shall be paid before the expiry of the ______________ day, after the last day of the wage-period in respect of which the wages are payable
Question 14. The OCCUPIER of a factory under the Factories Act, 1948 is required to appoint a Welfare Officer where number of workers employed are
Question 15. Section 17 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 provides that where an employee is engaged in work on piece work basis for which minimum time rate and not a minimum piece rate has been fixed, wages shall be paid at _____
Question 16. The term _________ means work in respect of which the skill, effort and responsibility required are the same, when performed under similar working conditions, by a man or a woman and the differences, if any, between the skill, effort and responsibility required of a man and those required of a woman are not of practical importance in relation to the terms and conditions of employment; is defined under the _____
Question 17. Certain benefits are provided to employees in case of sickness, maternity and employment injury and provisions for certain other matters in relation thereto have been detailed under
Question 18. Which of the following is not a DEPENDENT as per section 2(6A) of the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 _________
Question 19. According to section 40 of the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 it is incumbent upon the principal employer to pay both the employers contributions and the employees contribution in respect of every employee whether directly employed by him or by or through ________
Question 20. The Employees State Insurance Corporation to function efficiently has been provided with two wings namely ___________
Question 21. As per the Employees Pension Scheme, 1995 members on attaining the age of ________ and having rendered a minimum of ________ of contributory service qualify for pension from superannuation fund
Question 22. According to section 10 of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 every employer shall be bound to pay to every employee in respect of any accounting year a minimum bonus which shall be _______  of the salary or wage earned by the employee during the accounting year or ______ , whichever is higher, whether or not the employer has any allocable surplus in the accounting year
Question 23. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 _________ means the temporary closing of a place of employment or suspension of work or the refusal by __________ to continue to employ any number of persons so employed.
Question 24. Every employee shall be entitled to be paid by his employer in an accounting year, bonus, in accordance with the provisions of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 provided he has worked in the establishment in that year for not less than _________
Question 25. Section 6B of the Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 empowers the Central Government to frame a Scheme for the purpose of providing life insurance benefit to the employees of any establishment or class of establishments to which the Act applies, known as the
Question 26. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 where the services of an employee have been terminated for any act which constitutes an offence involving moral  turpitude, provided that such offence is committed by him in the course of his employment, the gratuity payable to the employee may be
Question 27. As per section 13 of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 no gratuity payable under this Act and no gratuity payable to an employee employed in any establishment, factory, mine, oilfield,  plantation, port, railway company or shop exempted under section 5 of the Act, shall be liable to attachment in execution of any decree or order of any ___________
Question 28. As per the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 the method used to fix minimum wages in respect of scheduled employment is called
Question 29. As per the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 in the case of permanent total disablement and death resulting from an injury, the minimum amount of compensation payable to an employee is ________
Question 30. As per section 19 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 __________ of the provisions of this Act and the rules made there under in the language or languages of the locality shall be exhibited in a conspicuous place by the employer in every part of the establishment in which women are employed.
Question 31. To make an employer liable under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 it is necessary that the injury caused to an employee by an accident, must arise _______
Question 32. Section 21 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 provides that a _____________ shall be responsible for payment of wages to each worker employed by him as contract labour and such wages shall be paid before the expiry of such period as may be prescribed and every principal employer shall nominate a representative duly authorised by him to be present at the time of disbursement of wages by the contractor and it shall be the duty of such representative to ________ the amount paid as wages in such manner as may be prescribed.
Question 33. The rate of employees and employers contributions in the Employees State Insurance Scheme is __________
Question 34. Under section 2(oo) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 termination of the services of a workman by the employer for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action, but not including voluntary retirement; or super-annuation; or nonrenewal of contract of employment; or termination of service on the ground of continued ill-health is known as ________
Question 35. As per section 10B of the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 ________ means an injury which involves, or in all probability will involve, the permanent loss of the use of, or permanent injury to, any limb, or the permanent loss of or injury to the sight or hearing, or the fracture of any limb, or the enforced absence of the injured person from work for a period exceeding _____________.
Question 36. Section 16 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 requires that in every establishment to which this Act applies, wherein contract labour numbering 100 or more is ordinarily employed by a contractor and the employment of the contract labour is likely to continue for such period as may be prescribed, the contractor for the use of such contract labour shall provide and maintain one or more
Question 37. Section 11 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 provides that every woman delivered of a child who returns to duty after such delivery shall, in addition to the interval for rest allowed to her, be allowed in the course of her daily work ________ break(s) of the prescribed duration for nursing the child until the child attains the age of ________.
Question 38. Injury resulting in absolute deafness to an employee due to accident under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 is treated as
Question 39. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 inter alia, applies to every shop or establishment within the meaning of any law for the time being in force in relation to shops and establishments in a State, in which _______ persons are employed, or were employed, on any day of the preceding _________
Question 40. Section 10 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 states that standing orders finally certified under the Act shall not, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen or a trade union or other representative body of the workmen be liable to modification until the expiry of ____________ from the date on which the standing orders or the last modifications thereof came into operation
Question 41. As per schedule to the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, bidi making and aggarbatti manufacturing are treated as ______
Question 42. Under section 7 of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 the period of work on each day shall be so fixed that no period shall exceed ____________ and no child shall work for more than ____________ before he has had an interval for rest for at least one hour
Question 43. As per section 12 of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 every railway administration, every port authority and every occupier shall cause to be displayed in a conspicuous and accessible place at every station on its railway or within the limits of a port or at the place of work, as the case may be, a notice in the local language and in the ______________ containing an abstract of _____________
Question 44. Under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 the function of a certifying officer or the appellate authority is to adjudicate upon the _____________ of the provisions of the standing orders
Question 45. Section 10A of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 provides that where any workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such a workman the subsistence allowance at the rate of ___________ of the wages which the workman was entitled to immediately preceding the date of such suspension, for the first ninety days of suspension; and at the rate of _________ of such wages for the remaining period of suspension if the delay in the completion of disciplinary proceedings against such workman is not directly attributable to the conduct of such workman
Question 46. Under section 13A of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 if any question arises as to the application or interpretation of a standing order certified under this Act, any employer or workman or a trade union or other representative body of the workmen may refer the question to any one of the _______ constituted under the ___________, and specified for the disposal of such proceeding by the appropriate Government by notification in the Official Gazette
Question 47. The violation of section 3 of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term not less than _________ but which may extend to one year or with fine which shall not be less than ten thousand rupees but which may extend to ____________ or with both
Question 48. The text of the ‘STANDING ORDERS’ as finally certified under Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 shall be prominently posted by the employer in ____________ and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen on _____________ to be maintained for the purpose at or near the entrance through which the majority of the workmen enter the industrial establishment and in all departments thereof where the workmen are employed.
Question 49. Under the Apprentices Act, 1961 any disagreement or dispute between an employer and an apprentice arising out of the contract of apprenticeship shall be referred for decision to the ________
Question 50. The preamble of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 states that it is an Act to make provision for the ________ and ________ of industrial disputes and for certain other purposes.
Question 51. Under section 3 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 the appropriate Government may by general or special order require the employer to constitute in the prescribed manner _______________ in industrial establishments, where _________ or more workmen are employed or have been employed on any working day in the preceding 12 months and such Committee will be comprised of the representatives of employers and workmen engaged in the 
Question 52. As per the Trade Unions Act, 1926 a registered trade union of workmen shall at all times continue to have not less than ____________ or ___________ of the workmen, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of seven, engaged or employed in an establishment or industry with which it is connected, as its members
Question 53. Under of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 unfair labour practices on the part of employers and trade unions of employers are specified in _________
Question 54. The Supreme Court carried out an in-depth study of the definition of the term INDUSTRY in a comprehensive manner and laid down the tests to determine whether an activity is covered by the definition of industry or not. Also referred to as the triple test, it was laid down in the case of ____
Question 55. As per the Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining Registers by Certain Establishments) Act, 1988 employer of very small establishment is required to furnish a core return in _______
Question 56. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 which of the following matter does not fall within the jurisdiction of Industrial Tribunals_______
Question 57. As per section 2(g) of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 SCHEDULED EMPLOYMENT means an employment specified in the schedule or any process or branch of work forming part of such employment. The schedule is divided into two parts namely, Part I and Part II. Part II relates to employments in ______
Question 58. As per section 22 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 no person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract without giving to the employer a notice of strike, within _______ before striking or within fourteen days of giving such notice
Question 59. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 which of the following matter does not fall within the jurisdiction of Labour Courts ______
Question 60. __________ means any dispute between employers and workmen, or between workmen and workmen, or between employers and employers, which is connected with the employment or nonemployment, or the terms of employment or the conditions of labour, of any person, and WORKMEN means all persons employed in trade or industry whether or not in the employment of the employer with whom the trade dispute arises as defined under the _____________
Question 61. As per section 27 of the Trade Unions Act, 1926 when a registered trade union is dissolved, notice of the dissolution signed by seven members and by the ____________ of the trade union shall be sent to the Registrar, within ___________ of the dissolution
Question 62. In terms of the Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining Registers by Certain Establishments) Act, 1988 SMALL ESTABLISHMENT means an establishment in which not less than _____________ and not more nineteen persons are employed or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months and VERY SMALL ESTABLISHMENT means an establishment in which not more than ____________ persons are employed or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months
Question 63. The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959 applies in relation to vacancies in any employment _______
Question 64. Under section 2(g) of the Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959 ESTABLISHMENT IN PRIVATE SECTOR means an establishment which is not an establishment in public sector and where ordinarily __________ or more persons are employed to work for remuneration. 
Question 65. As per the Apprentices Act, 1961 a person shall not be qualified for being engaged as an apprentice to undergo apprenticeship training in any designated trade, if such person is not less than _______
Question 66. Under the Apprentices Act, 1961 every apprentice undergoing apprenticeship training in a designated trade in an establishment shall be ______________ and not a worker and the provisions of any law with respect to labour shall ________ to or in relation to such apprentice.
Question 67. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, cast, sex, place of birth or any of them _________
Question 68. Articles 123 and 213 of the Constitution of India have conferred the legislative power to promulgate Ordinance on the
Question 69. The State must endeavour to secure living wage and good standard of life to all types of workers and make provision for securing the right to work and public assistance in case of unemployment, old age. These provisions are contained in the Constitution of India under ________
Question 70. According to Article 21A of the Constitution of India, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. This right is known as Right to Education and was introduced by   the Constitution in 2002 as _______
Question 71. Executive legislation, judicial legislation, municipal legislation and autonomous legislation are treated as ______
Question 72. In the interpretation of statutes, where there are general words following particular and specific words, the general words following particular and specific words must be confined to things of the same kind as those specified, unless there is a clear manifestation of a contrary purpose. Such rule of interpretation is called 
Question 73. If there is any appearance of inconsistency between the schedule and a specific provision in an enactment, the ________ shall prevail.
Question 74. The legal maxim actus curiae neminem gravabit means
Question 75. The legal maxim ubi jus ibi remedium means _______
Question 76. In certain cases it is lawful to redress ones injuries by means of self help without recourse to the court. Self defence, prevention of trespass, re-entry on land, abatement of nuisance are remedies available to the plaintiff for self help. These remedies are called _____
Question 77. The period of limitation in terms of sections 2(j) and 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963 to file a suit is ___________ for the balance due on a mutual, open and current account, where there have been reciprocal demands between the parties
Question 78. Under section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 EVIDENCE means and includes all statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry. Such statements are called _________
Question 79. ___________ means harm, loss or damage in respect of money, comfort, health, etc. whereas _________ means infringement of a right conferred by law on the plaintiff
Question 80. Section 39 of the ________ provides that when, to prevent the breach of an obligation, it is necessary to compel the performance of certain acts which the Court is capable of enforcing, the Court may in its discretion grant an injunction to prevent the breach complained of and also to compel performance of the requisite acts
Question 81. A decree through which the right as to any property or the legal character of a person is judicially ascertained is known as __________
Question 82. Interpretation or construction is the process by which the Courts seek to ascertain the meaning of the legislature through the medium of the authoritative forms in which it is expressed". The above statement is given by
Question 83. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 a person against whom a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made, is called _________
Question 84. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with the
Question 85. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure,  1973 ___________ means a case in which, a police officer may, in accordance with the ______________ or under any other law for the time being in force, arrest without warrant
Question 86. As per section 29 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate is empowered to pass ________
Question 87. As per section 29 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the Court of a Magistrate of the First Class is authorised to pass a sentence of _________
Question 88. In some torts, the defendant is held liable even though the harm caused to the plaintiff is without intention or negligence on the part of the defendant. Thus, the defendant is held liable without fault. This is based on the rule of strict liability which was first laid down in the case of
Question 89. The Right to Information Act, 2005 provides for setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens to secure access to information held by public authorities in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority. The burden of proving that the denial of information was justified lies on the ______
Question 90. The Right to Information Act, 2005 exempts certain categories of information from disclosure. These categories of information have been provided under __________
Question 91. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005 on failing to provide information, Public Information Officer will be liable for a fine of _____________
Question 92. Where life or liberty of a person is involved, the information shall be provided under the Right to Information Act, 2005 by the ____________

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